Why are there passages of Isaiah in the Book of Mormon written around 559 – 545 B.C in 2 Nephi Chapters 12-27 that are word for word out of the Kings James Bible since the Kings James version of the bible didn’t come out until the 17th century?
How could the people back then have known the exact words, and phrases that would be chosen for the Kings James version? There were many debates over which words to use in the Kings James Version that have the same meaning as other words. How could they have known which words and phrases were going to be decided upon? There are often many word combinations possible to get the exact message across when doing a translation.
It is worrisome that the Kings James Version was the version that Joseph Smith was the most familiar with and was the popular translation of the day.